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| Is Meat Slaughtered by Jews and Christians Permissible |
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| Written by Adibudeen | |
| Thursday, 21 October 2004 | |
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Page 2 of 4
As you see, the traditions explain the lawful food of the People of the Book as being confined to grains, and similar items. It is the meaning that is understood from the word: at-ta'am when it is used without any contextual restriction as it appears from the traditions and the stories narrated from the early days of Islam. That is why a great majority of our ?ulama believes that the lawfulness is confined to the grains, and similar things and the food prepared from them.
Some people (Rashid Rida in Tafsiru ?l-manar) have forcefully rejected this interpretation, saying that it is against the usage of the Qur'an concerning the word: at-ta'am. He further says, "In the Qur'anic language, cereal grain is not the overwhelming meaning of at-ta'am. Allah has said in this very chapter: Lawful for you is the game of the sea and its food, a provision for you and for the travelers. (5:96); and nobody can calim that the food of the sea means wheat and grain. Also, Allah says: All food was lawful to the Children of Israel-except that which Israel had forbidden to himself (3:93), and no one has said that the word food here means wheat or grain, because nothing of it was forbidden to the Children of Israel - neither before the revelation of the Torah nor after it. At-Ta'am basically refers to all that is tasted or eaten. Allah says narrating the story of the stream that Talut had said: whoever then drinks from it he is not of me, and whoever does not taste of it (lan Yat'amhu), he is surely of me (2:249). Also, Allah says: when you have taken the food (ta'imtum), then disperse (33:53)."
Comment: Would that I could know what did he understand from the sentence: at-ta'am when used without any contextual restriction refers to the grain, and similar things. It is amusing that he has tried to refute it with the verbs yat'amhu and ta'imtum while the scholars had talked about the noun at-ta'am and not about the verbs derived from that root. Another of his arguments is based on the genitive construction "food of the sea" and this construction itself is a clear context, which shows that it doesn't refer to cereal grain because wheat or barley does not grow in the sea. Another argument is based on the sentence: All food was lawful to the Children of Israel, and he himself says that wheat and cereal grains were not forbidden in their religion. This context clearly shows that the talk is not about creal grains. He should have found out from the Qur'an examples where the word: at-ta'am is used in its generality without contrary context and then he should have spoken; like the Divine words: redemption by feeding a poor man (2:184); the expiation (of it) is the feeding of the poor (5:95); And they give food out of love for Him (76:8); Then let man look to his food (80:24). [In all these verses the noun at-ta'am has been used free from contextual restrictions and it all refers to the food prepared from cereal grains.] He further says, "There was no confusion regarding cereal grains whether they were lawful or not. The question arose only about meat when something happens to create doubt about its lawfulness, e.g. if the animal dies a natural death or if it is slaughtered as an offering to the idols or without invoking the name of Allah. That is why Allah has said: Say: ?I do not find in that which has been revealed to me anything forbidden for an eater to eat of except that it be what has died of itself or blood poured forth...' (6:145); and all this is related to animals. It clearly shows that unlawfulness is restricted to this group only and unlawfulness of other things requires similar clear declaration."
COMMENT: This talk is more amusing than the previous one. He says that cereal grains is not the subject of doubt that it is lawful or not; the doubt occurs about the meat only. We should ask him: Which time is he talking about? Is he looking at these times of ours when people are familiar with Islam and its general regulations since so many centuries or is he talking about the times when the Qur'an was being revealed and the religion was just a few years old? Does he not know that the people had asked the Prophet [s] about the subjects, which were clearer than the rules of cereal grains? Allah has quoted some of their questions. For example: They ask you as to what they should spend (2:215). ?Abu ibn Hamid has narrated from Qatadah that he said, "We have been told that some people had said: ?How can we marry their women and they are on a (different) religion and we are on a (different) religion.' Then Allah sent down the verse: And whoever denies faith, his work is indeed forfeited..." You will find similar questions and objections in the traditions as we have quoted some in the subject of hajju ?t-tamattu', etc. |
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| Last Updated ( Thursday, 21 October 2004 ) |



